Schwartz functions on the real line have explicit Fourier interpolation

You need to know: Set {\mathbb R} of real numbers, even function f:{\mathbb R} \to {\mathbb R} (such that f(x)=f(-x) for all x\in{\mathbb R}), derivative, k-th derivative f^{(k)}(x), integration, set {\mathbb C} of complex numbers, Fourier transform \hat{f}(t)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-2\pi i t x} dx of an integrable function f:{\mathbb R} \to {\mathbb R}, absolute convergence of infinite series.

Background: Function f:{\mathbb R}\to{\mathbb R} is called a Schwartz function if there exist all derivatives f^{(k)}(x) for all k=1,2,3,\dots and for all x\in{\mathbb R}, and, for every k and \gamma\in{\mathbb R}, there is a constant C(k,\gamma) such that |x^\gamma f^{(k)}(x)| \leq C(k,\gamma), \, \forall x\in {\mathbb R}.

The Theorem: On 1st January 2017, Danylo Radchenko and Maryna Viazovska submitted to arxiv a paper in which they proved the existence of a collection of even Schwartz functions a_n:{\mathbb R}\to{\mathbb R} with the property that for any even Schwartz function f:{\mathbb R} \to {\mathbb R} and any x\in{\mathbb R} we have f(x)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty a_n(x)f(\sqrt{n})+\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty \hat{a_n}(x)\hat{f}(\sqrt{n}), where the right-hand side converges absolutely.

Short context: The classical Whittaker-Shannon interpolation formula states that if the Fourier transform \hat{f} of function f:{\mathbb R} \to {\mathbb R} is supported in [-w/2,w/2], then f(x)=\sum\limits_{n=-\infty}^\infty f(n/w)\text{sinc}(wx-n), where \text{sinc}(x) = \sin(\pi x)/(\pi x). The formula has numerous applications, in particular it allows to construct a “nice” continuous function which approximates a given sequence of real numbers. However, it does not work for functions whose Fourier transform has unbounded support. The Theorem provides a similar formula which works for arbitrary Schwartz functions. In particular, it implies that if f:{\mathbb R} \to {\mathbb R} is an even Schwartz function such that f(\sqrt{n})=\hat{f}(\sqrt{n})=0 for n=0,1,2,\dots, then f(x)=0 for all x\in{\mathbb R}.

Links: The original paper is available here, journal version is here.

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